2014年1月30日星期四

ASQ CQA PDF

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Exam Code: CQA
Exam Name: ASQ (Quality Auditor Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a
specific
requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical
process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are
regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available
Answer: D

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NO.4 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork
starts, the
comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit
Answer: A

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NO.5 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CQE
Exam Name: ASQ (Quality Engineer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?
A. Writing operating procedures.
B. Training.
C. Data acquisition and analysis.
D. Calibrating test equipment.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:
A. Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B. Prevention costs increase.
C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D. Management objectives are met.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:
A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B. Provide feedback to the group.
C. Function as the group leader.
D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?
A. Increased cost-of-quality results.
B. Improved working methods and morale.
C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?
. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group.
. Difficulty in arriving at consensus.
. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities.
. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. I,IIandIIIonly
D. I, II,IIIandIV
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses?
He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.
A. Dr. Juran
B. Dr. Deming
C. Dr. Taguchi
D. Dr. Feigenbaum
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on
the
gaps in performance?
A. Secure a workshop trainer.
B. Review a record of activities.
C. Set up a one shot case study.
D. Allocate employees for training.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:
A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured
orjudged.
C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to
another'sperformance.
D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly
describes team activities?
. The team leader is usually directive.
. The team leader often delegates tasks.
. Team members prioritize and perform duties.
. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
A. IIandIIIonly
B. I,IIandIIIonly
C. IandIV only
D. II,IIIandIV only
Answer: C

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NO.10 Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following
actions is effective in countering this problem?
. Stop killing the messenger.
. Establishing an open door policy.
. Practice management by walking around.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. IandIIIonly
D. I,IIandIII
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-235
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are designing a 3 site Connect Plus system with 12 repeaters per site, no site controller
redundancy, and 3 control channel-capable repeaters at each site. The average number of
subscribers active at a site may approach 300 at any given time of the day. If this customer
experiences a site controller failure, what symptoms and subscriber behavior would you expect
immediately after the failure occurs?
A. All calls in progress at the site will drop. Subscribers will automatically fall back to digital
conventional, allowing users to utilize any of the site’s repeaters.
B. All calls in progress at the site will drop. All subscribers will attempt to roam to one of the other
sites.
C. Calls in progress will remain until one of the other control-channel capable repeaters assumes
the site controller’s role and then they will drop and register on the new controller.
D. Calls in progress will stay up until they complete normally. Subscribers on the control channel
will attempt to roam to one of the other sites.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer is a rail operator whose system covers approximately 125 kilometers (77 miles)
of
track. Trains travel rapidly, and the operator is using a location tracking application to update their
displayed location as frequently as possible. Location updates are critical, even if this means
putting voice calls into the busy queue. What can you do to ensure this behavior?
A. Make sure that RSSI settings are set to -ll3dBm or less for “RSSI Preferred” in the mobiles in
the trains. This will allow the proper sensitivity to make frequent location updates possible. Give
individual SU records a lower priority than any talkgroup priority.
B. Enhanced GPS must be enabled in the Repeaters and Subscribers. Give individual SU records
a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
C. Call Sessions Configuration in the Network Manager should be set to 29 for the “Number of
Outbound Data Sessions Allowed” field and somewhat less for the Number of Voice/Inbound Data
sessions field. Give individual SU records a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
D. Location updates should be optimized by enabling Advanced GPS with GPS Data Revert
channels.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A Request for Proposal (RFP) for a single-site, operations-critical customer requires you to
respond to the following requirement: “...if the RF site equipment includes network switches,
describe the system behavior in the event of a site LAN switch failure.” Which of the following is
the BEST response to this requirement?
A. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed,the
failure of a site LAN will not affect calls in-progress, but will make it impossible for subscribers to
register at the site.
B. If the single site LAN switch fails, the site master repeater will begin broadcasting failsoft
messages. All subscribers will revert to failsoft operation. The users may select any site repeater
on which to communicate conventionally.
C. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed, the
failure of a site LAN switch will cause all calls to drop and the subscribers will attempt to roam to
an operational site.
D. In the case of a single-site system, Connect Plus does not utilize site LAN switches.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are using the Network Manager to connect to a multisite system. Where can you view the
current state of connections to other sites in this multisite system?
A. Event Log Viewer
B. RealTime Display
C. Site Status Window
D. MultiSite Configuration Window
Answer: C

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NO.5 If there is a failure or reboot of a site controller, which of the following must you consider
regarding
Over The Air (OTA) file transfers (select TWO)?
A. Any transfers in progress at the time of the failure may have to be repeated.
B. The controller will have to be re-entitled for OTA operation after it is back online.
C. If the site controller recovers on a different Control Channel, transfers may have to be
reconfigured.
D. Any pending transfers on that controller will be lost and must be re-queued.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Your customer operates a 4-site Connect Plus network. Two sites are adjacent to each other,
with
overlapping coverage. The other two sites respectively service two manufacturing plants that are
approximately 900 kilometers (559 miles) apart. There are approximately 30 talkgroups in the
network and 300 subscribers. When creating the Option Board codeplug for this customer’s
portable radios, which of the following is the best strategy to ensure smooth, logical operation?
A. Create a separate zone for each of the 4 sites to contain all the necessary contact and RSSI
settings.
B. Create a single Connect Plus zone that will address all of their necessary RSSI settings and
contact lists.
C. Create 2 Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings necessary
with this type of topology.
D. Create 3 separate Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings
necessary with this type of topology.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: EADA10
Exam Name: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.4 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.5 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.7 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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NO.11 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.12 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.13 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
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A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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Exam Code: S90-04A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Top-down approaches typically ____________ the long-term governance burden of services.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. eliminate
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. The bottom-up approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
B. The top-down approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
C. The bottom-up approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort
be carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
D. The top-down approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The primary deliverable of the service inventory analysis is a ____________ of the service inventory.
A. blueprint
B. contract
C. composition architecture
D. legend
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Inventory Management System project is delivering a modest solution comprised of three services.
The project team is following a bottom-up approach whereby service developers are building the services
to fulfill tactical (short-term) requirements. Although not everyone agrees with this approach, it does
actually directly support the following service-oriented computing goal:
A. Increased Intrinsic Interoperability
B. Increased Business and Technology Alignment
C. Increased Federation
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An SOA project carried out with a top-down approach can contain phases that require the completion
of the following tasks:
A. development of services
B. design of services
C. analysis of services
D. testing of services
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.6 A service candidate is:
A. a conceptual service
B. a proposed service that may not yet physically exist
C. a modeled service produced via a service modeling process
D. a modeled service that initially acts as the starting point for the physical design of the service
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 Two service delivery projects are being carried out concurrently. Each project has its own project team.
Even though both projects are delivering services for the same service inventory, each project team is
given complete independence as to how services are designed and developed and what design
standards are to be used. Which of the following statements describes a likely consequence of this
approach.?
A. The service inventory will be comprised of services that comply to different design standards and these
services will therefore not be compatible or interoperable.
B. Services with redundant and overlapping logic may be delivered because no effort was made to
coordinate the delivery of the services between the two projects.
C. One project team may decide to follow a top-down delivery approach, whereas the other project team
may follow a bottom-up delivery approach.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Bottom-up delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements while top-down
delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements.
A. tactical (short-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), strategic (long-term)
C. tactical (short-term), strategic (long-term)
D. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Claims Solution project is responsible for delivering a service composition comprised of seven
services. The project team is following a meet-in-the-middle approach whereby a service analyst and two
service architects will continue carrying out a top-down analysis effort after the initial set of services is
designed and developed. What will happen after the top-down analysis completes and the final service
candidates are noticeably different from the services that have already been delivered?
A. The previously delivered services remain in use until they can no longer fulfill their functional
requirements, at which point they are retired and replaced with new services based on the final service
candidates.
B. The previously delivered services are later redesigned and redeveloped as per the final service
candidates in order to bring the services in the Claims Solution in alignment with the target service
inventory blueprint.
C. The previously delivered services are not changed and the final service candidates serve as a constant
reminder as to how they should have been designed.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following tends to be the most expensive and time consuming project delivery strategy?
A. bottom-up
B. top-down
C. meet-in-the-middle
D. round-about
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is true?
A. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach allows an on-going top-down analysis to occur while
services are designed and delivered. The only requirement is that delivered services eventually be
updated to be kept in alignment with the results of the top-down analysis.
B. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the bottom-up approach in that it
allows services to be delivered without up-front analysis. The only difference is that the
meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of object-orientation principles instead of
service-orientation principles.
C. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the top-down approach in that it
allows services to be delivered after the completion of the top-down analysis. The only difference is that
the meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of people that act as mediators who ensure that
business analysts and technology architects can collaborate harmoniously.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is false?
A. With the bottom-up approach, services are built on an "as need" basis and are modeled to encapsulate
application logic to best serve the immediate requirements of the solution.
B. The bottom-up approach is often motivated by integration needs that may require establishing
point-to-point integration channels between legacy systems.
C. The bottom-up approach is focused primarily on maximizing service reuse. Therefore, special attention
is paid to the documentation of service profile information that is used to create complete service catalog
entries.
D. The bottom-up approach can result in the creation of hybrid services that contain a mix of logic from
different sources.
Answer: C

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NO.13 In a service-oriented analysis process, business and technology experts are encouraged to
collaborate hands-on so that they can jointly model service candidates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 SOA projects introduce new considerations that tend to augment the traditional project lifecycle as
follows:
A. they tend to introduce the need for more up-front analysis effort
B. they tend to require closer collaboration between business and technology experts
C. they tend to require a careful prioritization of tactical (short-term) and strategic (long-term)
requirements
D. they tend to introduce new project roles
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to start building
services before completing our top-down analysis.
B. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to complete our
service inventory blueprint before delivering our services.
C. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to bypass up-front
analysis altogether so that we could build our services in the shortest possible timeframe.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PHR
Exam Name: HRCI (Professional in Human Resources)
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NO.1 Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You
need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for
your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to theemployee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.2 As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees
on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law affects organizations
having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C

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NO.5 As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process
that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process
between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by
an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 perparticipant, per month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization.
Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII
of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. This is an example of an exception by bonafide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A

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NO.8 As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D

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NO.9 Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly
asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to
this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO
Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
Answer: C

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NO.11 The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the
JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What
danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
Answer: B

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NO.12 Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you're to keep abreast of
market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What component of the HR
Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C

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NO.13 During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to
vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series
of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic
designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of
validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
Answer: D

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NO.15 Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this
candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for
these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you
create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
Answer: A

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NO.18 As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
Answer: A

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NO.19 There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate
within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR Impact Model.?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B

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NO.20 The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering $80,000
for the starting salary they'll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this scenario an
example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
Answer: B

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Exam Code: GCIA
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC Certified Intrusion Analyst)
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Total Q&A: 508 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Document Object Model (DOM)
B. Non persistent
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.2 Allen works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned to
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messenger program. Suspect's computer runs on Windows operating system. Allen wants to recover
password from instant messenger program, which suspect is using, to collect the evidence of the crime.
Allen is using Helix Live for this purpose. Which of the following utilities of Helix will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. Asterisk Logger
B. Access PassView
C. Mail Pass View
D. MessenPass
Answer: D

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NO.3 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. He is performing real-time traffic analysis on IP
networks using Snort. Adam is facing problems in analyzing intrusion data. Which of the following
software combined with Snort can Adam use to get a visual representation of intrusion data?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Basic Analysis and Security Engine (BASE)
B. sguil
C. KFSensor
D. OSSIM
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He wants to investigate a
suspicious email that is sent using a Microsoft Exchange server. Which of the following files will he review
to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Checkpoint files
B. EDB and STM database files
C. Temporary files
D. cookie files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company's Windows 2000-based network is
configured with Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2000. You want to configure intrusion
detection on the server. You find that the different types of attacks on the Intrusion Detection tab page of
the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box are disabled. What is the most likely cause?
A. The PPTP through ISA firewall check box on the PPTP tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
B. The Enable IP routing check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box
is not selected.
C. The Log packets from Allow filters check box on the Packet Filters tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
D. The Enable Intrusion detection check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties
dialog box is not selected.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following file systems is designed by Sun Microsystems?
A. NTFS
B. CIFS
C. ZFS
D. ext2
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following tools are used to determine the hop counts of an IP packet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. TRACERT
B. Ping
C. IPCONFIG
D. Netstat
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following methods is a behavior-based IDS detection method?
A. Knowledge-based detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Statistical anomaly detection
D. Pattern matching detection
Answer: C

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The office network is configured as an IPv6
network. You have to configure a computer with the IPv6 address, which is equivalent to an IPv4 publicly
routable address. Which of the following types of addresses will you choose?
A. Site-local
B. Global unicast
C. Local-link
D. Loopback
Answer: B

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NO.10 SSH is a network protocol that allows data to be exchanged between two networks using a secure
channel. Which of the following encryption algorithms can be used by the SSH protocol?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Blowfish
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 You are the Network Administrator for a large corporate network. You want to monitor all network traffic
on your local network for suspicious activities and receive a notification when a possible attack is in
process. Which of the following actions will you take for this?
A. Enable verbose logging on the firewall
B. Install a network-based IDS
C. Install a DMZ firewall
D. Install a host-based IDS
Answer: B

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NO.12 Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.
Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Attacker can perform Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the
intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.
B. Attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.
C. Attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking
the second firewall if it is different.
D. Attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of the com pany
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which of the following can be applied as countermeasures against DDoS attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Limiting the amount of network bandwidth.
B. Blocking IP address.
C. Using LM hashes for passwords.
D. Using Intrusion detection systems.
E. Using the network-ingress filtering.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.14 Which of the following is known as a message digest?
A. Hash function
B. Hashing algorithm
C. Spider
D. Message authentication code
Answer: A

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NO.15 Sasha wants to add an entry to your DNS database for your mail server. Which of the following types of
resource records will she use to accomplish this.?
A. ANAME
B. SOA
C. MX
D. CNAME
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following is the default port for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 25
C. TCP port 80
D. UDP port 161
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following tools performs comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items,
including over 6100 potentially dangerous files/CGIs?
A. Dsniff
B. Snort
C. Nikto
D. Sniffer
Answer: C

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NO.18 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for BlueWells Inc. The company has a
Windowsbased network. Mark is giving a presentation on Network security threats to the newly recruited
employees of the company. His presentation is about the External threats that the company recently faced
in the past. Which of the following statements are true about external threats?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are the threats that originate from outside an organization in which the attacker attempts to gain
unauthorized access.
B. These are the threats that originate from within the organization.
C. These are the threats intended to flood a network with large volumes of access requests.
D. These threats can be countered by implementing security controls on the perimeters of the network,
such as firewalls, which limit user access to the Internet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports that must be used.
He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the
Internet. Adam is still worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert
channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D. Block ICMP type 3 messages
Answer: A

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NO.20 This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows: -It displays the signal
strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc. -It is commonly used for the
following purposes:
A. War driving
B. Detecting unauthorized access points
C. Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
D. WEP ICV error tracking
E. Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
Answer: D

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NO.21 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Your company has a Windows 2000based
network. You want to verify the connectivity of a host in the network. Which of the following utilities will you
use?
A. PING
B. TELNET
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

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NO.22 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned
to him to investigate a multimedia enabled mobile phone, which is suspected to be used in a cyber crime.
Adam uses a tool, with the help of which he can recover deleted text messages, photos, and call logs of
the mobile phone. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. FAU
B. FTK Imager
C. Galleta
D. Device Seizure
Answer: D

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NO.23 Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on
Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew
wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X.
Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?
A. LILO
B. BootX
C. NT Loader
D. GRUB
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following statements are true about snort?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It develops a new signature to find vulnerabilities.
B. It detects and alerts a computer user when it finds threats such as buffer overflows, stealth port scans,
CGI attacks, SMB probes and NetBIOS queries, NMAP and other port scanners, well-known backdoors
and system vulnerabilities, and DDoS clients.
C. It encrypts the log file using the 256 bit AES encryption scheme algorithm.
D. It is used as a passive trap to record the presence of traffic that should not be found on a network, such
as NFS or Napster connections.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.25 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator in a law firm. He has been assigned with
his first project. Adam collected all required evidences and clues. He is now required to write an
investigative report to present before court for further prosecution of the case. He needs guidelines to
write an investigative report for expressing an opinion. Which of the following are the guidelines to write
an investigative report in an efficient way?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. All ideas present in the investigative report should flow logically from facts to conclusions.
B. Opinion of a lay witness should be included in the investigative report.
C. The investigative report should be understandable by any reader.
D. There should not be any assumptions made about any facts while writing the investigative report.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.26 John, a novice web user, makes a new E-mail account and keeps his password as "apple", his favorite
fruit. John's password is vulnerable to which of the following password cracking attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dictionary attack
B. Hybrid attack
C. Brute Force attack
D. Rule based attack
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.27 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Tunneling proxy server
B. Reverse proxy server
C. Anonymous proxy server
D. Intercepting proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It can detect events scattered over the network.
B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
D. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer: B,C

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NO.29 Which of the following Web attacks is performed by manipulating codes of programming languages
such as SQL, Perl, Java present in the Web pages?
A. Command injection attack
B. Code injection attack
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Cross-Site Scripting attack
Answer: B

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NO.30 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: B

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