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Exam Code: AFE
Exam Name: IFPUG (Accredited Financial Examiner (AFE))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 286 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 There are many different sources of CMBS. Conduits and aggregate pools generally
consist of loans newly originated, purchased or held by investment bankers until the pool
is large enough for an efficient execution. Government agencies such as the Federal
National Mortgage Association (FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corp.
(FHLMC) are important sources of:
A. Residential financing
B. B2B financing.
C. Commercial financing.
D. Mortgage loans
Answer: A

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NO.2 A
is an amount of money, loaned at interest for a specified term, secured
by real estate and by its improvements such as buildings and infrastructure. This form of
instrument itself varies by jurisdiction, but the debt is always evidenced by an
accompanying promissory note.
A. Mortgage Loan
B. Real estate lending
C. Conventional Commercial Loans
D. CMBS
Answer: A

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NO.3 Prepayment of a conventional mortgage loan, prior to its specified maturity, is
discouraged through the general market acceptance of significant prepayment penalties.
Often these penalties are calculated so that when prevailing market interest rates are:
A. Lower than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
B. Greater than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
C. Equal to the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest rate
differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
D. Lower than the rate of interest being paid to the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
Answer: A

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NO.4 These are securities whose underlying assets consist of commercial mortgage loans. The
commercial loans are pooled, which brings diversification and liquidity to the asset class.
What are these?
A. Conventional securities
B. CMBS
C. Subordinated securities
D. Securitization
Answer: B

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NO.5 Many companies have developed an asset/liability management approach that is founded
on understanding product liabilities. Mortgages meet the primary objective of
maintaining:
A. A tight asset/liability match
B. A well-diversified core of investments
C. A tight asset/liability match with a well-diversified core of investments.
D. Real estate lending by insurance companies
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SD0-302
Exam Name: SDI (SDI - SERVICE DESK MANAGER QUALIFICATION)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 232 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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NO.3 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.14 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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NO.16 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.19 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.25 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.28 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.29 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BCP-521
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Integrating the BlackBerry MVS SIP Gateway Solution)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When an external caller calls an MVS user, the MVS user's BlackBerry smartphone fails to ring.
The MVS user is provisioned for BlackBerry device-initiated calling.
What is the likely cause of this failure? (Choose one.)
A. DTMF digits were rejected by the PBX as an invalid number
B. BlackBerry MVS Client did not create the call request
C. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the proper ANI number
D. BlackBerry MVS Client did not receive the call request
Answer: D

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NO.2 During a BlackBerry MVS installation, an MVS administrator is prompted to enter a MVS Data Manager
Hostname or IP Address.
Which IP Address value should this be? (Choose one.)
A. PBX
B. Serverwhere MVS is being installed
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Configuration Database server
Answer: B

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NO.3 A BlackBerry MVS customer needs to provision a group of BlackBerry MVS users so they will be able to
use BlackBerry MVS in a Voice over Wi-Fi only mode.
Which two tasks should the MVS administrator perform to provide the customer with this capability?
(Choose two.)
A. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set When Wi-Fi is unavailable, use Mobile to NO
B. Within the MVS users settings configuration, set Default line for outgoing calls to Voice over Wi-Fi
C. Within the Class of Service configuration, select the VoWi-Fi check box
D. Within the Class of Service configuration, disable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
E. Within the Class of Service configuration, enable User may change the default network for BlackBerry
MVS calls
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A European company has integrated its Avaya Communication Manager to the AudioCodes Mediant
Gateway with an E1 interface.
Which E1 signaling protocol is required.? (Choose one.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. QSIG
D. 5ESS
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of BlackBerry MVS Servers needed to support 14,000 users in a High
Availability environment? (Choose one.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.6 DTMF tones are blocked from reaching the SIP Gateway. How will this affect MVS users? (Choose
one.)
A. Calls over the Wi-Fi network will fail
B. Calls over the mobile network will fail
C. BlackBerry MVS Client will show as unregistered
D. DTMF tones will not be recognized on a conference bridge
Answer: B

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NO.7 If the MVS BlackBerry Enterprise Server Connector is NOT started, what effect will this have on
BlackBerry MVS Services? (Choose one.)
A. Incoming MVS calls will be available
B. Outgoing MVS calls will be available
C. Message Waiting Indicator will be disabled
D. MVS work line will be unregistered
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the way to test the Add Participant to a Call feature for an individual MVS user without
impacting existing users if most features are disabled during installation? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new template
B. Create a new Feature Set
C. Create a new Class of Service
D. Create a new Telephony Connector
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer with an Avaya PBX infrastructure is interested in purchasing BlackBerry MVS. The
customer needs to deploy BlackBerry MVS using a TDM configuration. The PBX environment includes
the Avaya components listed below.
Avaya S8730 Media Server configured for High Availability
Avaya Communication Manager 5.2
Avaya G650 Media Gateways
Which component does the customer need to facilitate the BlackBerry MVS integration? (Choose one.)
A. Dialogic Media Gateway
B. AudioCodes Mediant Gateway
C. Avaya Aura Session Manager
D. Avaya SIP Enablement Server
Answer: B

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NO.10 An IP-to-IP solution has just been configured. There are two Proxy Sets in the configuration. What two
entities do the Proxy Sets represent? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerryMVS Server
B. BlackBerryDispatcher
C. Vendor Media Gateway
D. Vendor IP PBX
E. BlackBerry Router
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 010-002
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Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The default database contains a table called City. Which of the following statements may be executed
to obtain a statement that could be used to (re-)create the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DESCRIBE City
B. DESCRIBE TABLE City
C. SHOW TABLE City
D. SHOW CREATE TABLE City
Answer: D

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NO.2 The table Country contains the following rows:
+--------------------------+------------+
| Name | Population |
+--------------------------+------------+
| Nauru | 12000 |
| Turks and Caicos Islands | 17000 |
| Tuvalu | 12000 |
| Wallis and Futuna | 15000 |
+--------------------------+------------+
Which of the following statements will return all rows in the table, sorted by the value in the Population
column?
Select the best response.
A. SELECT Name, Population ASC
FROM Country
B. SELECT Name, ORDER BY Population
FROM Country
C. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
GROUP BY Population ASC
D. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
ORDER BY Population
Answer: D

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NO.3 A MySQL table has ...
Select the best response.
A. zero or more columns, and zero or more rows.
B. zero or more columns, and one or more rows.
C. one or more columns, and zero or more rows.
D. one or more columns, and one or more rows.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement can be used to list all columns in the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DISPLAY COLUMNS FROM City
B. SHOW COLUMNS FROM City
C. SHOW COLUMNS LIKE 'City'
D. SHOW City COLUMNS
Answer: B

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NO.5 A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following
data:
+---------------+----------------+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+---------------+----------------+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+---------------+----------------+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,
decimal_number = decimal_number + 0.01
Which values are now stored in the double_number and decimal_number columns of the updated row?
Select the best response.
A. 1.8 and 2.5
B. 1.75 and 2.5
C. 1.8 and 2.51
D. 1.75 and 2.51
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the SQL WHERE clause?
In SQL statements, the WHERE clause specifies ...
Select the best response.
A. the tables from which data is to be retrieved.
B. a condition to filter for only specific rows.
C. a condition to filter for only specific groups defined by a GROUP BY clause.
D. a number to limit the number of rows that is operated upon by the statement.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In the context of database transactions, the atomicity property guarantees that...
Select the best response.
A. during a transaction, rows are processed one at a time.
B. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are immediately committed.
C. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are committed or rolled back as one unit.
D. other transactions cannot see the changes made in other ongoing uncommitted transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements can be used to list all databases that are accessible to the current
user?
Select the best response.
A. LIST DATABASES
B. SHOW DATABASES
C. DISPLAY DATABASES
D. VIEW DATABASES
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which part of a SELECT statement specifies the tables from which data is to be retrieved?
Select the best response.
A. The SELECT list.
B. The FROM clause.
C. The WHERE clause.
D. The LIMIT clause.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following statements will discard the existing database called world?
Select the best response.
A. DELETE DATABASE world
B. DROP DATABASE world
C. REMOVE DATABASE world
D. TRUNCATE DATABASE world
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_BOE_30
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 239 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 You design a Crystal Report on your own computer. The report connects to an Oracle database using
ODBC. You wish to publish the report to your BusinessObjects Enterprise environment to enable users to
view it on demand. Which are requirements for viewing the report on demand? (Choose two.)
A. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
B. The Crystal Reports Job Server must have a system DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
C. The Crystal Reports Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
D. The Crystal Job Page Server must have a user DSN matching the DSM created on the report
designer s machine.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object?
(Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.4 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another
Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using
the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform.?
(Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three .NET InfoView login page properties can you configure? (Choose three.)
A. Central Management Server (CMS) name that shows on the login page
B. Default user name that appears on the login page
C. Application name that appears in the title bar of the web browser
D. Authentication type that displays on the login page
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups?
(Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Where does the Web Intelligence Report Server send a Web Intelligence Report after it generates the
report to make it available to users on demand?
A. Web Intelligence Job Server
B. Output File Repository Server (FRS)
C. Web Application Server (WAS)
D. Report Application Server (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which two locations can you create List of Values (LOV) objects? (Choose two.)
A. Business View Manager
B. Crystal Reports
C. Central Management Console
D. List of Values Job Server
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which characteristic of the Web Intelligence Job Server enables it to provide stability and efficiency for
running large or complex reports?
A. Runs jobs as individual processes
B. Runs jobs using a sync-safe threads
C. Uses them ark-and-sweep garbage collection algorithm
D. Uses hash tables and smart pointers
Answer: A

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NO.13 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.16 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the
Desktop Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server?
(Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand
reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_TB1200_88
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When Jade Logistics creates a sales order, they want to see the description for the item so they can
communicate this to the customer. How can this requirement be met?
A. In the sales order, right-mouse click in the item code field to see the item description.
B. This information is standard in the sales order and you can make it visible in the sales order row using
form settings.
C. Once an item is selected for the sales order, the description and other item specifications are
automatically provided in the Logistics tab of the order.
D. Add a user-defined field in the item row to display the description for the item.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Top Toys defined their sub-periods as months. How often should they run the period-end closing
utility?
A. They are required to run the period-end closing utility both at the end of each month and at the end of
the fiscal year.
B. Depending on their financial processes, they should run the period-end closing utility at the end of the
fiscal year and also can run it at the end of each month.
C. Depending on their financial processes, they can run the period-end closing utility at the end of each
month and also at the end of each quarter.
D. Because they defined their sub-periods as months, the system requires them to run the period-end
closing utility at the end of each month.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The implementation consultant has just demonstrated the service type purchase order to the client.
The client lead is very concerned that they have to select from the entire list of G/L accounts when they
create a service type purchase order. There are several accounts that the client lead can select for
different types of services. What can the consultant suggest to help the client lead?
A. Define a project for each type of service, and associate a G/L account. When the client lead selects the
project, the G/L account is used.
B. Add a user-defined field to the purchase order row, with a list of valid values for the short list of
accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
C. Add user-defined values to the G/L account field in the purchase order row, with a fixed list of values
containing the short list of G/L accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
D. Set the short list of G/L accounts as default accounts on the Purchasing tab in the G/L Account
Determination.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your client has asked for a report on service contract history. What is the easiest way to identify the
correct fields needed in the report?
A. With a service contract in the active window, open the Query Wizard. It will automatically show the
table and field names for the active window.
B. Open a service contract document and right-mouse click on a field to see the table and field name.
C. Reference the DI-API online help the see the table and field names for the service contract object.
D. Open a service contract and toggle the System Information view to see the table and field names at the
bottom of the screen.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Ronald, the buyer at Treadwell Tires, created a purchase order for two items from a vendor. A week
later, just before the vendor was to deliver those items, Ronald called to add a third item to the order.
However, Ronald did not add the third item to the existing purchase order. The vendor delivers all three
items at once. What is the most efficient way for the warehouse clerk to receive the three items into the
warehouse?
A. Copy the two items from the purchase order to a goods receipt PO and manually add a row in the good
receipt PO for the third item.
B. Create a separate purchase order for the third item, before referencing both purchase orders in one
goods receipt PO.
C. Create one goods receipt PO for the 2 items on the purchase order and a second goods receipt PO to
receive the third item.
D. Instead of using a goods receipt PO, use the inventory goods receipt to receive the items.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The client wants to continue the numbering of invoices from the legacy system, so that there are no
gaps in the numbering. Additionally, sales quotations are issued by multiple employees, and the
numbering of sales quotations should continue for each employee. How can both these requirements be
implemented in SAP Business One?
A. In each user account, set the first and last document numbers for each document type.
B. Set the first invoice number using the document numbering function. In the same function create
multiple numbering series for sales quotations.
C. Set the first number for each type of document using the document numbering function.
D. Using the document settings function, set one document numbering range for invoices, and multiple
ranges for sales quotation documents.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently there are
10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50 staplers. When Mike runs
MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the recommended production order is for 90
staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?
A. The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.
B. MRP never considers sales orders as demand.
C. The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.
D. The planning definitions are set to consume forecasts.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would produce a
gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked.
What is the easiest way to implement this.?
A. Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
B. Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.
C. Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross profit is
less than 25%.
D. Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are possible business partner master types?
Note. There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Buyers
B. Leads
C. Employees
D. Vendors
E. Customers
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.10 The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the implementation
consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?
A. Install the Service Manager
B. Create a Service Level Agreement
C. Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business One
D. Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level
Answer: C

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NO.11 A delivery document is created for a shipment of 10 printers to Madison and Daughters Inc. One of the
employees creates an A/R invoice but forgets to reference the existing delivery document. Madison and
Daughters Inc. uses perpetual inventory. What unplanned effect will occur by posting these two unrelated
documents in the system?
A. The customer will be charged for 20 printers.
B. There will be a posting to an inventory variance account.
C. The invoice will reverse the previous entry to the cost of sales account.
D. The inventory account will be credited for 20 printers.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General Settings?
A. Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records will not
change.
B. New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.
C. When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of available
payment methods listed in General Settings.
D. When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and cannot
be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.13 During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with moving
average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now want some existing
products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be accomplished?
A. The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost for an
item at any time.
B. Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the items
must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.
C. As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can change the
valuation method.
D. They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This automatically
changes the valuation method.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are in the project preparation phase of a customer implementation at Ruby Manufacturing. So far
everything has gone to plan. Which of these could signal an unexpected project overrun?
A. The company will run the manufacturing add-on from an SAP partner that was recommended.
B. There are 15 employees who will need to work with SAP Business One.
C. You hear a rumor that two new logistics warehouses will be opening in the next month.
D. The production manager will also act as a functional lead on the project.
Answer: C

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NO.15 SG Products will go live tomorrow. The A/R and A/P balances need to be transferred from the legacy
system. How should the implementation consultant proceed to ensure that the A/R and A/P control
accounts are correct and up to date in the new system?
A. Import all open sales and purchase orders from the legacy system. The control accounts will then be
correct.
B. Copy the balances from both the Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet legacy accounts so that the
control accounts are correct.
C. Copy the A/P and A/R account balances from the legacy Balance Sheet. The control accounts will then
be correct.
D. Import the open invoice balances for each individual business partner. The control accounts will then
be correct.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C_TFIN52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What do the posting keys specify? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are
correct)?
A. Whether the accounts are allowed for posting.
B. Whether the line items are valid for a business transaction.
C. Whether the line items contain "credit" or "debit" values.
D. Whether the line item is connected to a payment transaction or not.
E. Whether the posting is sales-relevant and the sales figure of the account is to be updated by the
transaction, for example, by the posting of a customer invoice.
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.2 The number of the G/L account to be charged can be automatically suggested by the system provided
that automatic account determination has been defined for company code.
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a SAP Business Object (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. It is all the transaction data generated via transactions.
B. It is the instanced class of the Class Builder.
C. It is composed of tables that are related in a business context, including the related application
programs and it is maintained in the Class Repository.
D. It is the representation of a central business object in the real world, such as an employee, sales order,
purchase requisition, invoice and so on.
E. It is a sequence of dialog steps that are consistent in a business context and that belong together
logically.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The ______ specifies the master data level at which each field can be maintained.
A. Maintenance level
Answer: A

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NO.5 The transfer from the under-construction phase to completed asset is referred to here as ______.
A. capitalization of the asset under construction
Answer: A

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NO.6 According the Replacement Values: Index (one or more options may be true)
A. An indexed revaluation can also be calculated for accumulated depreciation and imputed interest.
B. Only year-dependent index classes are used.
C. The index series must be assigned to an index class.
D. You enter the index series in the asset or in the asset class.
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.7 Asset history sheet is the most important and most comprehensive year end report or intermediate
report
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.8 Preparation for year-end closing: (one or more options are true)
A. If you change any depreciation values, you must run depreciation posting again.
B. Once depreciation has been posted in FI-AA and FI, a balance sheet and profit and loss statement can
be created.
C. If an area posts APC values to the general ledger periodically, you will need to run report RAPERPOO
for periodic posting.
D. After the depreciation lists and asset history sheet have been checked, depreciation is posted.
E. If the final result is not satisfactory, you can carry out depreciation simulation or (bulk) changes, or
make adjustment postings.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E

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NO.9 Identify the features of a Business Blueprint from the following list: (There are more than one correct
answer for this question)
A. Business process groups
B. Blueprint document
C. Associated items
D. Business groups
E. Business scenarios
F. Blueprint structure
Answer: A, B, C, E, F

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NO.10 SAP provides model charts of depreciation for many countries but we can also define our own chart of
depreciation (by copying and changing)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.11 It is not possible to use two check series for making payment
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.12 Tax calculation by system are usually posted via separate line item to a special tax account in standard
scenario
A. true
B. falsh
Answer: A

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NO.13 For which scenario can you use the cash journal?
A. To post incoming and outgoing payments in any transaction currency.
B. To make remittances to vendors.
C. To record documents that will not be included in the general ledger.
D. To manage cash in local branches and offices.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are the depreciation terms that are mainly used as additional parameters in the cost-accounting
depreciation area?
A. scrap value
B. index
C. variable depreciation portion
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 What does the monitor provide? (4)
(Note: we can have more than one correct sentence. Please select the sentences you think they are
correct)
A. The access to messages and result lists.
B. The visualization of both entire technical and business information.
C. The opportunity to postpone someone's tasks.
D. The opportunity to view the work of colleagues and the processing sequence, as well as the technical
and business status of every task.
E. The ability to monitor the total progress of period-end closing when the user uses more than one task
list.
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.16 By the period control method of the depreciation key, the asset value date is determined for each
depreciation area.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.17 The master data section of ASSET CLASS consists with control data and default values for the
administrative data in the asset master record
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.18 Consider the following sentences about field status:
1. Fields which ______ can be made ______.
2) Fields that can be entered, but are not required, can be set to ______ entry.
Which of the options below matches the blank spaces of those sentences?
A. must not have an entry/optional for 1; suppressed for 2)
B. must have an entry/suppressed for 1; suppressed for 2)
C. must have an entry/optional for 1; optional for 2)
D. must have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
E. must not have an entry/required for 1; optional for 2)
Answer: D

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NO.19 If a closed year is subsequently released for posting, it can only be closed again once the year-end
closing program has been re-run.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.20 The area menus can be displayed but not changed in area menu maintenance
A. false
B. true
Answer: A

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NO.21 Several company codes can use the same chart of accounts, although they have different charts of
depreciation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.22 What are the elements that are available to enter rules for the prerequisites (validation & substitution)
and check (validation):
A. Logical Operator (boolean terms)
B. Comparison operators
C. Operands
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.23 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements is false (Please choose the correct sentence)?
A. The account type field in terms of payment basic data screen should be defined separately, to prevent
any done change in the term of payment.
B. Terms of payments are copied from invoice to credit memos when they are linked to.
C. Inserting a "V" in the invoice reference field during document entry means the terms of payment are
activated in the non-invoice-related credit memos.
D. The day limits define the dates of the cash discount periods.
E. The system cannot define the splitment of an installment payment, at least you define it in the terms of
payment.
Answer: D

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NO.24 The ______ determines the depreciation start date of the asset. This date is determined for each
depreciation are by the period control method of the depreciation key.
A. asset value date
Answer: A

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NO.25 A document can only be reversed if: One or more is correct.
A. The original document contains no cleared line items, if the document does contain cleared items, then
these items must be reset before reversal can take place.
B. The original document contains only customer, vendor and G/L line items.
C. The original document was posted in FI system or originating in other modules.
D. All specified values (such as, cost center) are not still valid.
Answer: A, B

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NO.26 What is the purpose of the terms of payment? (Please choose the correct sentence)
A. Define the baseline date.
B. Enable the cross-company code transactions.
C. Calculate a cash discount and invoice due date.
D. Calculate only the required conditions for SD invoices.
E. Calculate the tax amounts.
Answer: C

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NO.27 It is possible for the planned depreciation to be displayed through through assigning depreciation
terms and a planned start-up date to the order or project.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.28 What are the fields that can be used as selection criteria in reporting from the below given options.
A. Evaluation groups: These are asset master data fields for which the user can specify use and meaning.
B. Reason for investment: In this master record field, you can enter a reason for the investment.
C. Environmental protection indicator. Here you can enter a measure taken to comply with environmental
protection laws.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.29 [FI-Master Data] Field Status group control:
A. The GL account group.
B. The fields for data entry screens.
C. The number ranger.
D. The account type.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Company codes from different countries cannot tie processed in same payment run
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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